Online Questions - Valid Practice To your ASCP-MLT Exam (Updated 562 Questions) [Q201-Q223]

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Online Questions - Valid Practice To your ASCP-MLT Exam (Updated 562 Questions)

Practice To ASCP-MLT - Remarkable Practice On your MEDICAL LABORATORY TECHNICIAN - MLT(ASCP) Exam

NEW QUESTION # 201
hs-CRP is a more sensitive version of the C-reactive protein (CRP) test, a test that has been used for many years to assess inflammation in settings such as lupus, transplantation, infection, etc.
Which of the following cardiovascular risk markers is a more sensitive version of a test that is used to assess inflammation?

  • A. ApoB/ApoA1
  • B. hs-CRP
  • C. Oxidized-LDL
  • D. LpPLA2

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 202
The hepatitis B vaccine is a series of immunizations consisting of three injections of the hepatitis B antigen.
The antigen causes the recipient of the injection to make antibodies against the antigen, hence why this is an example of active immunity.
Immunology
The hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during Orientation. Which type of immunity is expected to develop and provide long-term protection?

  • A. inactive
  • B. passive
  • C. adoptive
  • D. innate
  • E. active

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 203
The disc diffusion method for antibiotic susceptibility testing is the Kirby-Bauer method. The agar used for this procedure is Meuller-Hinton.
Which of the following media is commonly used when performing the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion?

  • A. Chocolate agar
  • B. MacConkey agar
  • C. Mueller-Hinton agar
  • D. Thayer-Martin agar

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 204
Anti-A, anti-P, anti-Leb, and anti-M all react best at 4o C as they are predominantly IgM antibodies. Other antibody group choices above include IgG antibodies such as anti-K, anti-s, anti-S, and anti-Fya, anti-Lub, etc.
which react best at 37o C.
Which of the following groups of antibodies generally reacts most strongly at 4o C:

  • A. Anti-A, Anti-P1 , Anti-Leb , Anti-M
  • B. Anti-A, Anti-K, Anti-Lub , Anti-s
  • C. Anti-H, Anti-S, Anti-Jkb , Anti-Leb
  • D. Anti-B, Anti-K, Anti-Lua , Anti-Fya

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 205
Streptococcus pyogenes is the correct answer. Streptococcus pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic which demonstrate a green area of partial hemolysis around the colonies. Staphylococcus aureus will produce complete hemolysis but is catalase positive. Streptococcus agalactiae is beta-hemolytic but only produces a partial clearing of the red blood cells in sheep blood agar.
Complete hemolysis of sheep blood agar as demonstrated by the image below would be seen in which of the following catalase-negative isolates?

  • A. Streptococcus agalactiae
  • B. Staphylococcus aureus
  • C. Streptococcus pyogenes
  • D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 206
Molarity x Molecular Weight x Volume = Grams
Molecular Weight (aka Formula Weight) =
2(1) + 32 + 4(16) = 98
So, 4 x 98 x 0.2L = 78.4g
What weight of H2SO4 is contained in 200 ml of a 4 molar H2SO4 solution? (Atomic weight: H= 1; S = 32; 0
= 16)

  • A. 78.4 gm
  • B. 15.68 gm
  • C. 39.2 gm
  • D. 84 gm
  • E. 156.8 gm

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 207
Provide the equivalent measurement for 1 ounce.

  • A. 100 grams
  • B. 10 grams
  • C. 5.7 grams
  • D. 28.35 grams

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 208
The dematiaceous molds can be broadly separated into two major groups: the agents of chromomycosis that grow more slowly, maturing only after 7 days or more of incubation, and the more rapidly growing species that most commonly are clinically insignificant commensals or contaminants when recovered from clinical specimens, but in rare situations may cause opportunistic infections called phaeohyphomycosis.
Dematiaceous molds can be broadly separated into two major groups; the agents of chromomycosis and clinically insignificant commensals or contaminants. The agents of chromomycosis grow: more slowly than; more rapidly than; or generally at the same rate as the clinically insignificant commensals or contaminants?

  • A. generally at the same rate as
  • B. more rapidly than
  • C. more slowly than

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 209
Alpha-fetoprotein is a substance typically used in the triple test during pregnancy and for screening chronic liver disease patients for hepatocellular carcinoma.
Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are MOST characteristically associated with:

  • A. multiple myeloma
  • B. hepatocellular carcinoma
  • C. chronic active hepatitis
  • D. alcoholic cirrhosis

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 210
A positive spot test shows agglutination of horse erythrocytes when added to patient serum previously absorbed with guinea pig kidney, but not when added to patient serum previously absorbed with beef erythrocyte stroma. The test is generally simple, sensitive, and specific, but false negative are common in young children with mononucleosis.
The most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOT©) for infectious mononucleosis employs:

  • A. Horse erythrocytes
  • B. Intact beef erythrocytes
  • C. Sheep erythrocytes
  • D. None of the above

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 211
Chemistry
Estrogen and progesterone markers are most commonly used to provide prognostic information about:

  • A. Menopause
  • B. Breast cancer
  • C. Uterine cancer
  • D. Cervical cancer

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 212
Gram-positive bacteria retain the primary crystal violet stain that is applied in the Gram stain because of the cross-linking of the thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls. Their cell walls contain less lipids than that of a gram-negative bacteria, and this reduces the permeability of their cell wall to the organic solvents that are used as a decolorizer. When the counterstain is added, it may enter the gram-positive cell, but does not change the color of the cells.
A thick peptidoglycan is MOST often associated with which of the following types of bacteria?

  • A. Gram-negative bacteria
  • B. Both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria
  • C. Gram-positive bacteria

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 213
If Kappa or Lambda is predominant and CD5 is co-expressed with CD19 (CD19/CD5 dual positive lymphocyte population), and CD23 is expressed, chronic lymphocytic leukemia is a probable diagnosis. CD19 is normally found on normal B cell populations and CD5 is normally found on mature T cell populations.
However, CD5 is present on B cells in B-chronic lymphocytic leukemia or Mantle Cell Lymphoma, both abnormal B cell malignant processes.
CD23 expression is not consistent with Mantel cells as shown on the decision tree on the right.
A monoclonal B-cell population (Kappa or Lambda predominant) with expression of CD19, CD20, CD23, and co-expression of CD5 is consistent with which of the following?

  • A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
  • B. A normal B cell
  • C. Mantle cell lymphoma
  • D. A mature T cell

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 214
Which of these advancements in the clinical laboratory has led to concerns about patient privacy

  • A. staffing with several levels of lab professionals
  • B. automated analyzers
  • C. high test volumes
  • D. computers

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 215
On the red cell membrane, there is a bicarbonate / chloride exchanger. This exchanger allows for bicarbonate to leave the red cells while chloride is allowed inside.
In blood, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with:

  • A. phosphorus
  • B. sodium
  • C. potassium
  • D. chloride

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 216
Bone marrow biopsies are helpful diagnostic tools in:
Evaluation of anemia and thrombocytopenia
Evaluation of cytopenias
Diagnosing leukemias
Can be part of evaluation for FUO
Bone marrow biopsies are NOT used as screens for hematologic issues during routine check-ups.
Hematology
In which of the following situations would a bone marrow aspirate and biopsy possibly be used as an aid for diagnosis? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Evaluation of cytopenias
  • B. Evaluation of fever of unknown origin (FUO)
  • C. Screening for hematologic issues during routine check-ups
  • D. Diagnosis of leukemias
  • E. Evaluation of anemia and thrombocytopenia

Answer: B,E


NEW QUESTION # 217
Set of comprehensive safety guidelines designed to protect patients and health care workers

  • A. Microscope
  • B. Universal blood precautions
  • C. Standard Precautions
  • D. Transmission precautions

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 218
Western blot analysis is frequently utilized as the confirmatory method of HIV detection.
Which of the following assays is routinely used for confirmation of HIV infections:

  • A. Southern blot
  • B. In-situ hybridization
  • C. Western blot
  • D. Radioimmunoassay

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 219
DAT ( Direct Antiglobulin Test ).
When AHG or Coombs serum is used to demonstrate that red cells are antibody coated in vivo, the procedure is termed:

  • A. Direct technique
  • B. Hemagglutination technique
  • C. Indirect technique
  • D. Hemolysis technique

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 220
The characteristic that distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus species is their lack of motility.
Enterococci are all catalase-negative. Growth on bile esculin agar and in 6.5% salt broth are two characteristics that have commonly been used to identify Enterococcus to the genus level. A positive esculin in combination with a positive PYR reaction is another approach to presumptive identification.
Which one of these characteristics distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus species?

  • A. PYR positive reaction
  • B. Catalase negative
  • C. Growth on bile esculin agar
  • D. Non-motility

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 221
Because of the difficulty in culturing Epstein-Barr virus, and readily available heterophile antibody test and serology, it is rarely necessary to culture this virus in routine clinical practice.
Micro
Which one of the following viruses requires a complex lymphoblastoid cell culture, and is rarely if ever diagnosed by culture:

  • A. Herpes Simplex Virus
  • B. Epstein-Barr Virus
  • C. Varicella-Zoster Virus
  • D. Cytomegalovirus

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 222
Eosinophils do not have cytoplasm containing large purple/blue-staining granules. Instead, their granules are large but are orange/red in color. These granules are very distinctive for this type of cell, typically making their identification simple.
ll of the following statements describe an eosinophil EXCEPT:

  • A. Cytoplasm contains large reddish-orange granules.
  • B. Is a member of the granulocyte series
  • C. May be called an "eo"
  • D. Cytoplasm contains large purple/blue-staining granules.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 223
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The ASCP-MLT (ASCP) exam is a certification exam designed for medical laboratory technicians. The exam is developed by the American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP), which is a professional organization that focuses on improving patient outcomes through various laboratory practices. The ASCP-MLT (ASCP) exam is designed to evaluate the knowledge, skills, and competence of individuals who are seeking to become certified medical laboratory technicians.

 

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